John 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
Why is it that in the scriptures, specifically the Bible, the pronouns are not capitalized? Does the condescension of Jesus also refer to His doing the will of His Father and not His own will?
Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, god sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
This is language I'm not sure I follow exactly, but maybe the law refers to the law of Moses that the people followed, hoping it would save them if they lived it righteously enough. But it really was never sufficient, it was always designed to direct heart and mind to Jesus Christ who would come down as a man, live perfectly, and then suffer for the sins of every other man so that justice could be satisfied and we could be relieved of those burdens. This is a process of purification and sanctification needed to return to our Heavenly Father.
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